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Canterbury Palace Whitstable 24 Sep 18 7.33pm | |
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This place has changed. There was once a time that it would have been impossible to get through 5 pages of a thread like this without someone demanding pictorial ‘evidence’. Let alone neglecting that very basic duty to discuss the works of Chaucer. For shame.
We were somewhere around Barstow, on the edge of the desert, when the drugs began to take hold... |
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steeleye20 Croydon 24 Sep 18 7.48pm | |
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The wife ran off with our next door neighbour last week. I do miss him..............
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chris123 hove actually 24 Sep 18 7.59pm | |
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Originally posted by PalazioVecchio
what if your best mate's missus looks like Anne Widdicombe ? We can land a man on the moon, but not on Ann Widdecombe.
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ex hibitionist Hastings 24 Sep 18 8.12pm | |
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Originally posted by chris123
We can land a man on the moon, but not on Ann Widdecombe. AW when in her prime? Would you? By jove sir you most certainly would have done [Link] ... shocking what age can do. You lads impress me, I've barely got the energy to be faithful these days let alone unfaithful, though maybe a change is as good as a rest!
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iheartcpfc SE25 24 Sep 18 8.57pm | |
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c***'s trick
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chateauferret 24 Sep 18 10.09pm | |
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Originally posted by Badger11
Respect and no problem. It wouldn't be the first time that words change their meaning Gay being the obvious one as in Gay bachelor originally meaning a young man chasing women. Maybe I should start a thread about how words have changed over time which of course is the beauty of English and why no group shoudl be allowed to claim "this is our word". Edited by Badger11 (24 Sep 2018 9.06am) Semantic change happens in all languages, even in that slowest-changing of all Indo-European languages Icelandic, which is nearly mutually intelligble with Old Norse. It is driven at least in part by changes in the world around us, as predicted by the Sapir-Whorf hypothesis. It is also motivated by fashion, sociolinguistic and psycholinguistic factors, and by the fact that language doesn't like synonyms, i.e. if you have two words meaning the same thing, one of the moves a bit so that both remain useful and distinct. A fine example often quoted is Old English gesaelig, which meant "happy, prosperous" and moved through "blessed, pious, innocent" (C12), "harmless, pathetic" (C13), "weak, weak-willed" (C14), "feebleminded, foolish" (C16), to (Modern English silly) "dizzy, dazed, insensible" as in knocked silly (C19) to "trivial, pointless" and "ridiculous, laughable" (today). The cognate German word, selig, means "blessed, happy" (as in Selig sind, die da Leid tragen, "Blessed are they that mourn", Ps. 25 : 6). "Gay" is an example of a euphemism that once provided a fig leaf to cover something people didn't want to talk about or admit existed. It has become respectable because of the change in attitudes about those things, not because of the change in meaning of the word itself. But what has happened is that the original meanings of the word, "merry, jolly; brightly-coloured" have given way and it's no longer usual to use the word in those senses. An originally similarly-meaning word, merry, came during the 19th century to mean "pissed". Usually euphemisms go out of fashion and disappear, however. I think I wrote about this somewhere before, but English grammar, being very analytic (i.e. not inflecting words much but using word order to convey sentence structure) allows words to change their functions easily. For example, modern social media usage allows "like" to be used as a noun and "heart" as a verb, despite there existing perfectly good words of the "correct" part of speech already ("approval" and "love" respectively). One of our favourite words on these fora is s***(e) but despite properly being a noun it is often used as an adjective: "How s***e were we today?" This can happen because English grammar can let you actually not be able to tell whether it's a noun or an adjective. "The ref was s***e today". Is s***e here a noun complement of be, or a predicate adjective? (once upon a time we might have required the latter to be s***ty, but actually I don't think that means the same any more: "covered in s***e" rather than "unfavourably comparable to s***e" ). Oh, and you can use it as an adverb too. "I thought Bloggs played s***e today". Does that mean the same as "... played like s***e"? I don't know. Probably the speaker was taking a shortcut, but you might say that the former looks like a metaphor and the latter like a simile.
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Mapletree Croydon 24 Sep 18 10.30pm | |
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Originally posted by chateauferret
Semantic change happens in all languages, even in that slowest-changing of all Indo-European languages Icelandic, which is nearly mutually intelligble with Old Norse. It is driven at least in part by changes in the world around us, as predicted by the Sapir-Whorf hypothesis. It is also motivated by fashion, sociolinguistic and psycholinguistic factors, and by the fact that language doesn't like synonyms, i.e. if you have two words meaning the same thing, one of the moves a bit so that both remain useful and distinct. A fine example often quoted is Old English gesaelig, which meant "happy, prosperous" and moved through "blessed, pious, innocent" (C12), "harmless, pathetic" (C13), "weak, weak-willed" (C14), "feebleminded, foolish" (C16), to (Modern English silly) "dizzy, dazed, insensible" as in knocked silly (C19) to "trivial, pointless" and "ridiculous, laughable" (today). The cognate German word, selig, means "blessed, happy" (as in Selig sind, die da Leid tragen, "Blessed are they that mourn", Ps. 25 : 6). "Gay" is an example of a euphemism that once provided a fig leaf to cover something people didn't want to talk about or admit existed. It has become respectable because of the change in attitudes about those things, not because of the change in meaning of the word itself. But what has happened is that the original meanings of the word, "merry, jolly; brightly-coloured" have given way and it's no longer usual to use the word in those senses. An originally similarly-meaning word, merry, came during the 19th century to mean "pissed". Usually euphemisms go out of fashion and disappear, however. I think I wrote about this somewhere before, but English grammar, being very analytic (i.e. not inflecting words much but using word order to convey sentence structure) allows words to change their functions easily. For example, modern social media usage allows "like" to be used as a noun and "heart" as a verb, despite there existing perfectly good words of the "correct" part of speech already ("approval" and "love" respectively). One of our favourite words on these fora is s***(e) but despite properly being a noun it is often used as an adjective: "How s***e were we today?" This can happen because English grammar can let you actually not be able to tell whether it's a noun or an adjective. "The ref was s***e today". Is s***e here a noun complement of be, or a predicate adjective? (once upon a time we might have required the latter to be s***ty, but actually I don't think that means the same any more: "covered in s***e" rather than "unfavourably comparable to s***e" ). Oh, and you can use it as an adverb too. "I thought Bloggs played s***e today". Does that mean the same as "... played like s***e"? I don't know. Probably the speaker was taking a shortcut, but you might say that the former looks like a metaphor and the latter like a simile.
Coo. A man of depth. What on earth are you doing on the HOL? And how dare you be interesting and knowledgeable at the same time.
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Badger11 Beckenham 24 Sep 18 11.41pm | |
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Originally posted by chateauferret
Semantic change happens in all languages, even in that slowest-changing of all Indo-European languages Icelandic, which is nearly mutually intelligble with Old Norse. It is driven at least in part by changes in the world around us, as predicted by the Sapir-Whorf hypothesis. It is also motivated by fashion, sociolinguistic and psycholinguistic factors, and by the fact that language doesn't like synonyms, i.e. if you have two words meaning the same thing, one of the moves a bit so that both remain useful and distinct. A fine example often quoted is Old English gesaelig, which meant "happy, prosperous" and moved through "blessed, pious, innocent" (C12), "harmless, pathetic" (C13), "weak, weak-willed" (C14), "feebleminded, foolish" (C16), to (Modern English silly) "dizzy, dazed, insensible" as in knocked silly (C19) to "trivial, pointless" and "ridiculous, laughable" (today). The cognate German word, selig, means "blessed, happy" (as in Selig sind, die da Leid tragen, "Blessed are they that mourn", Ps. 25 : 6). "Gay" is an example of a euphemism that once provided a fig leaf to cover something people didn't want to talk about or admit existed. It has become respectable because of the change in attitudes about those things, not because of the change in meaning of the word itself. But what has happened is that the original meanings of the word, "merry, jolly; brightly-coloured" have given way and it's no longer usual to use the word in those senses. An originally similarly-meaning word, merry, came during the 19th century to mean "pissed". Usually euphemisms go out of fashion and disappear, however. I think I wrote about this somewhere before, but English grammar, being very analytic (i.e. not inflecting words much but using word order to convey sentence structure) allows words to change their functions easily. For example, modern social media usage allows "like" to be used as a noun and "heart" as a verb, despite there existing perfectly good words of the "correct" part of speech already ("approval" and "love" respectively). One of our favourite words on these fora is s***(e) but despite properly being a noun it is often used as an adjective: "How s***e were we today?" This can happen because English grammar can let you actually not be able to tell whether it's a noun or an adjective. "The ref was s***e today". Is s***e here a noun complement of be, or a predicate adjective? (once upon a time we might have required the latter to be s***ty, but actually I don't think that means the same any more: "covered in s***e" rather than "unfavourably comparable to s***e" ). Oh, and you can use it as an adverb too. "I thought Bloggs played s***e today". Does that mean the same as "... played like s***e"? I don't know. Probably the speaker was taking a shortcut, but you might say that the former looks like a metaphor and the latter like a simile.
I am glad a never started a thread on this subject you would have blown me out of the water.
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Helmet46 Croydon 25 Sep 18 6.56am | |
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Show her how it feels to be betrayed by a friend and shag your mate instead.
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Forest Hillbilly in a hidey-hole 25 Sep 18 7.18am | |
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this thread needs,.......photos
I disengage, I turn the page. |
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stuckinbristol In the woodwork. 25 Sep 18 8.37am | |
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Originally posted by chateauferret
Semantic change happens in all languages, even in that slowest-changing of all Indo-European languages Icelandic, which is nearly mutually intelligble with Old Norse. It is driven at least in part by changes in the world around us, as predicted by the Sapir-Whorf hypothesis. It is also motivated by fashion, sociolinguistic and psycholinguistic factors, and by the fact that language doesn't like synonyms, i.e. if you have two words meaning the same thing, one of the moves a bit so that both remain useful and distinct. A fine example often quoted is Old English gesaelig, which meant "happy, prosperous" and moved through "blessed, pious, innocent" (C12), "harmless, pathetic" (C13), "weak, weak-willed" (C14), "feebleminded, foolish" (C16), to (Modern English silly) "dizzy, dazed, insensible" as in knocked silly (C19) to "trivial, pointless" and "ridiculous, laughable" (today). The cognate German word, selig, means "blessed, happy" (as in Selig sind, die da Leid tragen, "Blessed are they that mourn", Ps. 25 : 6). "Gay" is an example of a euphemism that once provided a fig leaf to cover something people didn't want to talk about or admit existed. It has become respectable because of the change in attitudes about those things, not because of the change in meaning of the word itself. But what has happened is that the original meanings of the word, "merry, jolly; brightly-coloured" have given way and it's no longer usual to use the word in those senses. An originally similarly-meaning word, merry, came during the 19th century to mean "pissed". Usually euphemisms go out of fashion and disappear, however. I think I wrote about this somewhere before, but English grammar, being very analytic (i.e. not inflecting words much but using word order to convey sentence structure) allows words to change their functions easily. For example, modern social media usage allows "like" to be used as a noun and "heart" as a verb, despite there existing perfectly good words of the "correct" part of speech already ("approval" and "love" respectively). One of our favourite words on these fora is s***(e) but despite properly being a noun it is often used as an adjective: "How s***e were we today?" This can happen because English grammar can let you actually not be able to tell whether it's a noun or an adjective. "The ref was s***e today". Is s***e here a noun complement of be, or a predicate adjective? (once upon a time we might have required the latter to be s***ty, but actually I don't think that means the same any more: "covered in s***e" rather than "unfavourably comparable to s***e" ). Oh, and you can use it as an adverb too. "I thought Bloggs played s***e today". Does that mean the same as "... played like s***e"? I don't know. Probably the speaker was taking a shortcut, but you might say that the former looks like a metaphor and the latter like a simile.
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Badger11 Beckenham 25 Sep 18 9.24am | |
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Originally posted by chateauferret
Semantic change happens in all languages, even in that slowest-changing of all Indo-European languages Icelandic, which is nearly mutually intelligble with Old Norse. It is driven at least in part by changes in the world around us, as predicted by the Sapir-Whorf hypothesis. It is also motivated by fashion, sociolinguistic and psycholinguistic factors, and by the fact that language doesn't like synonyms, i.e. if you have two words meaning the same thing, one of the moves a bit so that both remain useful and distinct. A fine example often quoted is Old English gesaelig, which meant "happy, prosperous" and moved through "blessed, pious, innocent" (C12), "harmless, pathetic" (C13), "weak, weak-willed" (C14), "feebleminded, foolish" (C16), to (Modern English silly) "dizzy, dazed, insensible" as in knocked silly (C19) to "trivial, pointless" and "ridiculous, laughable" (today). The cognate German word, selig, means "blessed, happy" (as in Selig sind, die da Leid tragen, "Blessed are they that mourn", Ps. 25 : 6). "Gay" is an example of a euphemism that once provided a fig leaf to cover something people didn't want to talk about or admit existed. It has become respectable because of the change in attitudes about those things, not because of the change in meaning of the word itself. But what has happened is that the original meanings of the word, "merry, jolly; brightly-coloured" have given way and it's no longer usual to use the word in those senses. An originally similarly-meaning word, merry, came during the 19th century to mean "pissed". Usually euphemisms go out of fashion and disappear, however. I think I wrote about this somewhere before, but English grammar, being very analytic (i.e. not inflecting words much but using word order to convey sentence structure) allows words to change their functions easily. For example, modern social media usage allows "like" to be used as a noun and "heart" as a verb, despite there existing perfectly good words of the "correct" part of speech already ("approval" and "love" respectively). One of our favourite words on these fora is s***(e) but despite properly being a noun it is often used as an adjective: "How s***e were we today?" This can happen because English grammar can let you actually not be able to tell whether it's a noun or an adjective. "The ref was s***e today". Is s***e here a noun complement of be, or a predicate adjective? (once upon a time we might have required the latter to be s***ty, but actually I don't think that means the same any more: "covered in s***e" rather than "unfavourably comparable to s***e" ). Oh, and you can use it as an adverb too. "I thought Bloggs played s***e today". Does that mean the same as "... played like s***e"? I don't know. Probably the speaker was taking a shortcut, but you might say that the former looks like a metaphor and the latter like a simile.
Captain Mainwaring " I was wondering when someone would come up with this".
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